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Answer: Some Christian commentators connect "wicked"
with the lestai ("thieves," "brigands"), used by Matthew
and Mark (Matthew 27:38, Mark 15:27) to describe the
two men crucified along with Jesus. But, crucifixion
was not used as a means for executing common criminals.
These two men were put to death for opposing Roman rule
of the Land of Israel and not for being "wicked." The
fact is that lestai was a derogatory Roman term for
insurrectionists, who, by armed action, opposed Roman
rule. Moreover, according to the Gospels, Jesus was
not buried with them. In fact, the point is made that
he was buried in an empty tomb.
If Christians insist that Jesus went to his death
voluntarily, the phrase, "And his grave was set with
the wicked," cannot refer to him, because it describes
an imposed fate and not something accepted voluntarily
by the servant. The servant's "grave" was placed or
established among the "wicked." There is no specific
reference, anywhere in the New Testament to illustrate
how Jesus' grave was placed with the wicked unless it
is to be assumed that all those interred are to be considered
as having been wicked.
Christians identify Jesus as the subject of "with
the rich in his deaths" on the basis of the Gospel of
Matthew. Matthew attempts to introduce biblical "fulfillment
of prophecy" into his narrative. He often does this
by using his creative imagination to enrich his narrative
with biblically based information that forms the background
for a so-called "fulfillment of prophecy." Thus, it
is only in Matthew's narrative that Joseph of Arimathea
is identified as a "rich man" (Matthew 27:57) who laid
the corpse of Jesus "in his own new tomb" (Matthew 27:60).
In the Gospel of Mark he is described simply as "a prominent
member of the Council" (Mark 15:43). The Gospel of Luke
describes him as "a member of the Council, a good and
righteous man" (Luke 23:50). In the Gospel of John he
is "a disciple of Jesus, but a secret one" (John 19:38).
Given Matthew's propensity for adding biblical allusion
to his narrative it is no wonder that he alone adds
that Joseph was rich and that he placed Jesus' corpse
in his own tomb thereby supposedly fulfilling, "And
his grave was set . . . with the rich." The character
of Joseph of Arimathea was introduced into Matthew's
Gospel narrative as a rich man in order to show a fulfillment
of Isaiah 53:9, which says that God's servant will be
buried with the rich. But the Gospels make a point of
stating that Jesus alone was buried in the tomb.
The Christian interpretation of Isaiah 53 posits that
such phrases as "for he was cut off out of the land
of the living" (verse 8), "his grave was set" (verse
9), and "in his deaths" (verse 9) refer to the death
and burial of Jesus, with subsequent verses indicating
his supposed postresurrection glorification. Yet, there
is nothing in a literal or metaphorical interpretation
of these verses to suggest that they refer to Jesus.
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