| |
Answer: In Galatians 4:4 Paul claims that "God sent
forth His Son, born of a woman, born under law."
If we presume a birth without a man's assistance,
we still have the problem that Jesus was not born in
accordance with the Law. His birth, according to the
New Testament, violates the laws of the Torah, which
specify what constitutes adultery. Mary, according to
the New Testament, did not conceive by her betrothed,
Joseph. Therefore, she committed adultery "under law"
(Deutronomy 22:23-24). As a result, the Christian claim
that Jesus was born of a woman engaged to a man, yet
had God as his father, must be considered to refer to
an adulterous union.
God's law does not allow for Him to seduce a maiden,
even through the medium of the Holy Spirit. What would
be the worth of a moral code that is violated by God
Himself? The seduction of a female by a god fits, at
best, in the realm of pagan mythology. Such a statement
made in reference to the God of Israel is an abomination.
|