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Answer: Mark simply states that Jesus was tempted by
Satan (1:13) but Matthew (4:1-11) and Luke (4:1-13)
elaborate the story. It is claimed that during Jesus'
alleged forty days' sojourn in the desert, following
his baptism by John, Satan tempted him with promises
of an earthly kingdom if Jesus would only worship him.
If Jesus is part of God, how could he possibly sin,
and how could Satan possibly hope to tempt him? Satan's
words would be absolutely meaningless. Surely, even
the earthly Jesus was incapable of committing as sinful
an act as the worshipping of Satan. Indeed, unlike a
mere mortal, it was decreed that the Gospels' Jesus
follow exactly the life outlined for his earthly existence
by the very godhead of which he was an integral part.
In assuming a human body, the Jesus of Christian theology
knew what God's purpose for the future of mankind was
and what was expected of him in order to bring this
about. Did Jesus, the perfect god-man, have free will
to sin while on earth? Obviously not! Had he failed
to carry out God's plan, the entire timetable would
have been eternally disrupted. Lacking free will to
do as he pleased, Jesus could not truly have been tempted.
Neither could Satan, as one of God's creations, promise
Jesus, who was already divine and in control of the
universe, a mere kingdom as a reward for worshipping
him. As puffed up with pride as one might envision Satan
to be, he is certainly not stupid. In the Gospel narrative
Satan knew Jesus was not a mere human, given to flattery
and subject to the temptations of the flesh. Jesus was
not one who would accept worthless promises.
Even if we suppose that Satan did make Jesus the most
extravagant of offers, as reported by the New Testament,
it would not in the least have been a temptation to
the divine Jesus of Christianity. In view of the claim
by Christian theology that Jesus was offered an earthly
kingdom by God: "Ask of Me, and I will give the nations
for your inheritance, and the ends of the earth for
your possession" (Psalms 2:8), can anyone believe that
a member of the Trinity would have difficulty in choosing
between the two opposing offers? Certainly Satan would
not have wasted his time on such a futile endeavor.
It is obvious that the account of Satan's attempt to
tempt Jesus cannot be reconciled with the overall view
of Jesus as held by Christians.
Of Jesus it is said: "For because he himself has suffered
and has been tempted, he is able to come to the aid
of those who are tempted" (Hebrews 2:18). But if Jesus
was God as well as man at the time of his temptation
by Satan, how is this verse, and indeed the entire temptation
episode, to be reconciled with the belief expressed
by the author of James? He states: "Let no one say when
he is tempted: 'I am being tempted by God'; for God
cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt
anyone" (James 1:13). If according to James "God cannot
be tempted by evil," then the Jesus who Christians claim
is God cannot have been tempted by Satan. The entire
Gospel episode of Satan's temptation of Jesus must therefore
have not occurred. |