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Question: As a human being, Jesus
certainly had very little. Yet, because he was allegedly
God, he could expect, on reassuming his heavenly role,
to exercise his power as God. So what did he, in the
final accounting, give up in dying a human death?
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Answer: Christian theology is saying that Jesus gave
up a temporary earthly life as a god-man to return to
his role in heaven, where, as part of the Trinity, he
reigns as God. In Isaiah 53:12, God speaks of the suffering
servant of the Lord, who, as a result of his selflessness,
is willing to give up all that he possesses in the service
of God. Clearly, it is unreasonable to say that Jesus
sacrificed himself for the redemption of mankind when,
by his actions, he knowingly gained more than he lost.
Paul writes: ". . .
Jesus Christ, who, although he existed in the form
of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to
be grasped, but emptied himself, taking the form of
a bondservant, and being made in the likeness of men.
And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself
by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death
on a cross. Therefore also God highly exalted him, and
bestowed on him the name which is above every name,
that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of
those who are in heaven, and on earth, and under the
earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus
Christ is Lord to the Glory of God the Father" (Philippians
2:5-11). There is a gross misuse of the concept of "sacrifice"
where one who is alleged to be divine knows that by
giving up a flesh-and-blood existence, something essentially
unimportant to him, he will receive in return a position
of eternal exaltation and power.
This cannot be called sacrifice. On leaving his transitory
human lifespan behind him, Jesus, it is alleged, returned
to heaven to once more become part of the eternal Godhead.
Why should Jesus be rewarded for his alleged sacrifice,
for doing what he himself, as God, wanted done? There
is no point for God, of whom Jesus is allegedly a part,
to say: "I will divide him a portion with the great"
as an actual reward to Himself. Such reward can be properly
given to one who is all human and not one who is at
the same time divine. The suffering servant is promised
"a portion with the great" and that "he shall divide
the spoil with the mighty," but if Jesus is God, who
can be great enough to share the spoil with him? Is
it conceivable that one who is God could possibly have
only "a portion" comparable to that of mere earthly
rulers, or that "he shall divide the spoil" with anyone?
Even if this could be rationalized, it would then run
counter to what is stated in Psalm 2, which Christians
claim refers to Jesus.
In that psalm, God offers, to the person in question,
the entire earth for a possession (verse 8), and all
rulers are told to give homage to that person (verse
10-12). Christian commentators will often try to explain
away these irreconcilable contradictions with arguments
that have no basis even in their own New Testament.
It is for the reader to be vigilant and to be wary of
such vain attempts that are based on distortions.
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