Suffering Servant

In Isaiah 53, wasn't the Prophet, in fact, referring to Jesus in this chapter? And didn't all Jews before the Middle Ages recognize this chapter as "messianic"?

Who is the narrator in Isaiah 53? Who is to be astonished by the ascendancy of he who was formerly despised?

Who is the suffering servant of the Lord?

As a human being, Jesus certainly had very little. Yet, because he was allegedly God, he could expect, on reassuming his heavenly role, to exercise his power as God. So what did he, in the final accounting, give up in dying a human death?

Is it true that Jews interpreted Isaiah 53 as referring to the Messiah until the medieval commentator Rashi explained it as referring to the people of Israel?

Is it true that in conformity with Isaiah 53:9, "he had done no violence," Jesus did nothing of a violent nature during his lifetime?

Is it true that in conformity with Isaiah 53:9, "neither was there any deceit in his mouth," Jesus never lied?

Did Jesus fulfill Isaiah 53:7 that describes the suffering servant "as a lamb that is led to the slaughter" and as someone who "opened not his mouth"?

How can Jews say that the suffering servant of Isaiah 53 refers to the Jewish people when not every aspect of this passage has been fulfilled by any individual Jew, including Jesus?

In Isaiah 53:10, God's promises concerning the suffering servant are conditional: "If he would . . . he shall see. . . ." Does this apply to Jesus?

Did Jesus fulfill the role of the asham, "guilt-offering," that's used to describe the suffering servant in Isaiah 53:10: "If he would offer himself as a guilt- offering"?

Isaiah 53:10 says of the suffering servant, "He shall see seed, he shall prolong days." Can this apply to Jesus?

How can Christians apply the phrase v'ayn lo, "he has nothing" or "he shall have nothing" (Daniel 9:26) and Isaiah 53:12, where the suffering servant receives "a portion with the great," to Jesus?

Isaiah 53:2 describes the suffering servant as one who "had no form nor comeliness, that we should look upon him, nor appearance that we should delight in him." Does this fit the New Testament's description of Jesus

Does the Gospel's representation of Jesus show fulfillment of the description of the suffering servant: "he was despised and we esteemed him not" (Isaiah 53:3)?

Isaiah 53:7 says that the suffering servant "humbled himself and opened not his mouth" as a lamb about to be slaughtered or a sheep dumb before its shearers. Does this describe Jesus' behavior at his trials?

Isaiah 53:4 says that the suffering servant was considered "stricken" by his enemies. Does this describe Jesus in any way?

What does lamo mean in Isaiah 53:8?

According to Isaiah 53:8, why does the servant of the Lord suffer?

How does Isaiah 53:8 show that the death of Jesus should not be considered as atonement for the sins of humankind?

Is it true (as Christians claim) that Jews at the time of the destruction of the Second Temple believed that Isaiah 53 spoke of a suffering messiah who was to die as an atonement for the sins of others and then be resurrected?

Why do Jews reject the Christian claim that the beginning of Isaiah 53:8, generally rendered, "By oppression and judgment he was taken away," refers to Jesus?

What is meant in Isaiah 53:8 by: "And his life's history who is able to relate?"

What is meant in Isaiah 53:8 by: "For he was cut off out of the land of the living"?

Why do Jews reject the Christian claim that "And his grave was set with the wicked, and with the rich in his deaths" (Isaiah 53:9) refers to Jesus?

What is the meaning of "And his grave was set with the wicked, and with the rich in his deaths" (Isaiah 53:9)?

The Jewish interpretation of Isaiah 53 maintains that the suffering servant of Israel suffered because of the persecutions by the Gentile nations. I understand that the nations overdid it when persecuting Israel but didn't Israel suffer primarily because of its own sins? Please explain.